When the NAR Research Committee met in D.C. in May, a question was asked about the impact the FHA’s new 90 day requirement for comps used in an appraisal in a declining market might have on sale prices.
So I went home and looked at my local data; below is what showed up. Now since all real estate is local, anything here would not necessarily be relevant where you are. However, if multiple markets are experiencing the same thing, perhaps there is value in collecting the data on these patterns such that if this 90 day rule thing is not good, the data might show why it must stop.
From a high in February of 2009 of over 21%, the amount of bank resales being “For Sale” has dropped significantly. Yet the sale of bank owned properties has remained a significant percentage of all homes sold. This is because they are initially priced at a “liquidation price” roughly 25% to 35% below market

The reason bank owned properties are dominating the sale market is because they offer great value to both the buyers and the banks selling them. An under priced home provides the buyer with instant equity. Simultaneously, these sales offer great value to banks because the banks actually free up capital by liquidating the properties below market value. Furthermore, not only do the banks get cash out of the home when it sells, I believe they also get access to TARP funds to cover some of their losses and it eliminates the loan loss reserve requirement imposed by the FDIC. Thus, banks’ losses are subsidized by TARP making it impossible for an individual seller to compete.
Consequently, this liquidation price, which is roughly 65% to 70% of market value, gets the bank-owned home sold faster than those of non-bank owned sellers and the banks receive closer to asking price. Furthermore, to ensure new loans are not going to once again be considered “toxic assets,” banks have arbitrarily chosen to use the FHA rule on non-FHA insured homes despite the absence of such a requirement by the G.S.E. The result is a drag on non-foreclosed resales as banks are not only giving the loans but dictating which comparables can be used by appraisers.
By the way, what is interesting about this last chart is that it shows that around the third quarter of 2008, roughly when the HUD announced its “Declining Markets” requirement for appraisals, non-bank resales took a large hit on price. This suggests that non-bank sellers have been forced to accept much lower prices…prices that are approaching those of the bank-owned fire-sales.“
Finally, while this is only a glimpse into a very small population of home sales, it does raise a question: if appraisers are required to use “Liquidation Prices” for sold homes over the last 90 days to determine today’s “Market Price,” what is today’s “Liquidation Price?”
Robert E. Taylor, Jr.
Michigan Association of REALTORS



















Comments
Comment by: TX-Lindy
- Oct 13, 2009 9:23:31 PMWhile I agree with this, there are also ripple effects... investors offering cash make it difficult for regular buyers that may be offering the same price. Sellers are getting short-changed when appraisers are limited by one-size-does-NOT-fit-all rules; not every nghbrhd is REO-driven. As stated in your last paragraph, these liquidation prices become the new "norm" and are not always indicative of true value, and yet are perpetuating the effect. Appraiser's adjustments for condition seem to also be less than what they once were... foreclosures in decent condition vs a foreclosure that has no appliances and stripped of all fixtures, are being valued quite similarly. Furthermore, I'm seeing so many these "liquidation price" listings selling for, in equal measure, the full asking price, and significantly OVER the list price, and significantly UNDER the asking price. By continuing to use the "liquidation prices" in comps, whereas distress properties used to be tossed, the market is driven further downward. The percentage of REOs in a given nghbrhd should be the determining factor, I believe, before deciding what criteria should be used to determine value. A nghbrhd with 10%-15% REOs should NOT be handled the same as a nghbrhd with 75% REOs. Realtors and appraisers already know this, but the banks make little or no distinction.
Comment by: Mark X
- Oct 20, 2009 1:44:24 AMAfter the financial crisis hit our economy, housing industry was also badly injured and many were subjected to foreclosures. Until now, many homeowners and also first time homebuyers are having trouble with their transactions. To avoid the same mistakes again, experts now do recommend that couples take time for financial planning. Financial planning for married couples or even those that cohabit is recommended, especially since the recession began, and the importance of staying or getting out of debt has been sharply augmented by national affairs over the past year or so. Credit card debt should be done away with as soon as possible, and the sooner you can begin or the more you can contribute to a retirement plan, the better. The less you need to pay, the more you keep for yourself. Whether it's the elderly, the single, or young or middle aged couples, everyone should get as much debt relief as possible.
Comment by: Sandi Pfister
- Oct 24, 2009 1:42:19 PMBob: I know there is more to this article than published here, specifically the 'last chart' to which you refer in your penultimate paragraph - and the chart is not included here.
However, what I infer from your article that you have not stated in layman's (non-statistician) terms is this: (A) the lenders have determined there is more and easier money to be made by taking no-strings-attached funds from the government through their future pass-thru of higher taxes of individual and business taxpayers to pay for bank bailouts of alleged 'toxic assets'; (B) the lenders have the freedom and ability to turn around and recapture a value dictated by the lenders and imposed on the supposedly independent appraiser that is strictly based on the downward spiraling ('declining value') assumptions. Does this mean that the lenders are making more money from the government than from (1) interest payments over 30 or less years and (2) points charged to initiate a loan? Does this also mean that eventually the government will be everyone's landlord when the house values get to zero?
Sandi
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